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Question about the PRS system.


leschirons
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Just a quick question, probably a silly one, but hopefully someone here will know.

If two songs get played on the radio, one, as a one off say, by an unknown artist, and the other by someone really famous like Elton John for example, is there any difference in the royalties paid to each artist for that one play of their respective songs?

Edited by leschirons
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As far as I understand it (as a PRS member and ex-PRS employee), there is no difference based on degree of fame etc, however, it is possible that one will receive royalties and the other not because royalties on some broadcast outlets are based on random sampling of their output.

EDIT: The thing about random sampling is based on what I was told when I queried why I hadn't had a payout after some music of mine was played on a local radio station - that was back in the mid 1990's so things may have changed. Certainly I never had that issue with national radio or TV channels.

Edited by Earbrass
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In order for a songwriter to receive PRS performance royalties the follow conditions have to apply:

The songwriter is a member of the PRS (or similar PRO - performing rights organisation - if they are operating in country other than UK)

The song must be registered with the PRS (or the PRO for their country)

The performance must have been logged and the data sent to the PRO of the country in which the performance occurred.

The actual amount of performance royalties paid depends on when and where the performance happened - and there are different criteria for live and broadcast performances - and the duration of the individual songs that make up the performance. Finally the amount paid to any individual songwriter will also depend on who else has a share of the performance royalties of the song such as co-composers and publishers and what percentage share each of the interested parties actually has.

Edited by BigRedX
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