Terry M.

There was. Wasn't great though unfortunately for basses. No sorry that was Portsmouth I'm thinking of.

😄🤣😅

Just seen a Fender Mexican Player Plus Jazz V on E-Bay £1.6k or best offer. I nearly spat my tea out!!

Just heard Kenny's Music has closed all Scottish stores 🤔

Have fun with this thread guys I'm out 🤭

Playing a bass that really gels isn't the same as needing it in my opinion.

I'd even go one step further and say (if we omit badge sobbery) how much better is a 2nd hand US Fender than some Squiers at sub £500?

But does he need one?

I've literally never heard of a piccolo snare until now. Every day's a school-day 🙂

I literally had to Google it 😁

I'm wondering how many bassists get to tell the other musicians which instrument to bring along?

Yes you're not spending enough time around P bass obsessed individuals. Can you sort that out? 😄

The practice might prevent individuals with a "lesser" income from nabbing a bargain is the only thing I would say along with it can in certain instances over-inflate market-value. But yes we know it's not illegal.

This is because the answer to your question is no. I think swapping "received " for "perceived" is more to the point. The instrument does what we tell it to. Of all the gigs I've been to I've never had an issue with the bassist's weapon of choice.If I have any issues other than sound engineering it's usually the player to "blame" 1964 all-original P-bass with flats or not.

Makes you realise that less choice back then equalled less to worry about.

I literally have zero interest in "vintage" basses so I stay away from (old) tonewood debates generally. I currently don't own any basses that offer through-body stringing and it can stay that way as far as I'm concerned.

Through bridge or body with regards to string tension? I can live without the choice as I'm personally convinced it's mainly just marketing.

Is there meant to be a discernible difference between stringing through body or bridge? Never noticed it on any of my American Fenders I've owned.

I've only recently gotten into double-thumbing and have some way to go before it's at a decent level but so far on my 24 fret basses I haven't noticed any low-end loss compared to using my 21 fret one. Same with "regular" slap.

I'm wondering how many 20 fret players regularly use them all.

I don't know if this is scientifically correct but I definitely understand where you're coming from. I've never considered this to be honest.

I'm intrigued when you say more bottom end for double-thumb. How do more frets equate to less low end?

Threads going off-topic is a way of life on Basschat. When it gets too much for me personally I unfollow the thread. I'm not suggesting you do this but in the grand scheme of things we're not on here discussing anything that deep so it doesn't really matter. I didn't appreciate the call-out is what I'm saying I guess.

There are a ton of comments on here that while not irrational prejudices in and of themselves are legitimate and direct responses to irrational prejudices. All part of the fun in my books ☺️

The only person who can decide that is you. No one will experience a bass the same way you will so go and try one if you can? If not then order one from a retailer with a decent return policy.