jonmohajer1 Posted November 6, 2011 Share Posted November 6, 2011 Hey guys, I was hoping someone here could help me by letting me know whether this is a sensible idea or not. I have a Trace Elliott Bonneville 100W guitar head. It's super heavy and probably the loudest guitar amp I've ever used. I mainly play bass these days though, and instead of buying a new bass amp I was wondering if it would be "ok" to go into the guitar amp through a SansAmp (preamp) straight into the effects loop, then obviously into a nice bass cab. So effectively skipping the amps own preamp and using the amp like a power amp. The sansamp has output level options for "instrument" or "line"- I'm guessing I want to use "line" as this is after the amp's own preamp- is this correct. Am I likely to run into many problems with this? Does the amp "care" that there's a signal coming in at the effects return with nothing being "sent"? [attachment=92660:tracehead.jpeg][attachment=92661:sansamp-bass-driver-di.jpg] Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Monckyman Posted November 6, 2011 Share Posted November 6, 2011 Hey. Your amp cares not. I have used my VHA in this way and it works fine, completely bypassing the amps own pre-amp. Your amp uses valves and mine doesn`t but I can`t see why that should matter. The sansamp would also be fine going through the amps input stage too. Your choice. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
eddiehoffmann Posted November 6, 2011 Share Posted November 6, 2011 I don't see a problem. My advice would be to try to set the sansamp fairly clean and use the amps natural saturation as a starting point. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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